Math, asked by shanghailalji, 8 months ago

0÷0=2 is possible because 0 × 2= 0

Answers

Answered by geetanshi540

1

Answer:

According to me it is not possible

Answered by shivtanu21

0

25 THNX + FOLLOW = INBOX

PLZ MARK MY ANSWER AS BRAINLIEST

Previous Question

Next Question

Similar questions

Math, 4 months ago

a die is thrown twiice what is the probability that 1] sum of 10 dgits 2]product of digits 15...

Math, 4 months ago

·ABCD is the parallelogram. If ZA = 130°, find ZD.

English, 4 months ago

Tom said, "I'm going to London tomorrow." А Tom said that he was going to London tomorrow B Tom said that he is going to London the following day C Tom said that he was going to London the following day D Tom said that he will be going to London the following day...

Physics, 8 months ago

Explain with a labelled diagram the principle, construction and working of an electric motor. What is the function of a split ring commutator in a motor?

Geography, 8 months ago

Example of acid igneous rocks...

Music, 11 months ago

Name the wind instrument which is a must in indian weddings...

Chemistry, 11 months ago

Mandelliv sfarted their experiment from which element...

Social Sciences, 11 months ago

Mention any four important purposes of a constitution...