Math, asked by pS0avithary, 1 year ago

0!=1 1!=1 how is this possible? explain by giving proof.

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
0

In factorial case, we have to multiply all the numbers together behind that....as in case 1!, there is only 1 so it is equal to 1..BUT 0! is exceptional case, it would be 1 just because of it neatly fits what we expect C(n,0) and C(n,n) to be.....

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