Question

0! is always taken as​

Answer 1

Answer:0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer 2

Answer:

0! is always taken as 1 .

Step-by-step explanation:

To Prove :

0! = 1

Solution :

Since  we know that

$n ! =n\cdot (n-1)\cdot (n-2)\cdot (n-3).....3\cdot 2\cdot 1$                   ..........(1) equation

and the value of

$(n-1)! =(n-1)\cdot (n-2)\cdot (n-3).....3\cdot 2\cdot 1$               ...........(2)  equation            

So from (1) and (2) we get

$n!=n\cdot (n-1)!$

$(n-1)!=\frac{n!}{n}$

Now substitute n = 1 we get

$(1-1)!=\frac{1!}{1}$

$0!=1$

Hence we always take 0! = 1

#SPJ2