Math, asked by pritidawnde, 2 months ago

01 The inverse operation of x2
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Answers

Answered by sb33
0

Answer:

For f(x)=x2 , we ghave f(−1)=f(1) (for example), so there is no inverse function.

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Answered by Anonymous
1

Q.)Does x2 have an inverse?

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Therefore, the function f (x) = x 2 does NOT have an inverse. There is also a simple graphical way to test whether or not a function is one-to-one, and thus invertible, the horizontal line test.

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