Math, asked by Debidutta7568, 1 year ago

(1 / 1+a^(n-m)) + (1 / 1+a^(m-n)) is equal to

Answers

Answered by Arrush
1

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

(1/1+a^(n-m))+(1/1+a^(m-n))

(1/1+(a^n/a^m))+(1/1+(a^m/a^n))

(1/(a^m+a^n/a^m))+(1/(a^n+a^m/a^n))

(a^m/a^m+a^n)+(a^n/a^m+a^n)

taking LCM,

(a^m+a^n/a^m+a^n)

=1

Hence, required answer=1

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