Math, asked by gunachandshougrakpam, 10 months ago

1 1by 2 + 3 1 by 2 into 4 by 5 divided by 4 by 3 is equal to​

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Answers

Answered by vicky275151
3

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

1*1/2=3/2;3*1/2=7/2;*4/5÷4/3

3/2+7/2=10/2*4/5=40/10=4÷4/3

4*3/4=3

Answered by gyaanbaba
8

Answer:

1 \frac{1}{2}  + 3 \frac{1}{2}  \times  \frac{4}{5}   \div  \frac{4}{3}

use Bodomas rule

first solve

divide

next

multiplied

next

add

1 \frac{1}{2}  = (2 \times 1 + 1) \div 2 \\

 =  \frac{3}{2}

same as

3 \frac{1}{2}  = (3 \times 2 + 1) \div 2

 = \frac{7}{2}

now solve

 \frac{3}{2}  +  \frac{7}{2}  \times ( \frac{4}{5}   \div  \frac{4}{3} )

 \frac{3}{2}  +  \frac{7}{2}  \times  \frac{3}{5}

 \frac{3}{2}  +  \frac{21}{10}

 \frac{36}{10}

3.6

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