(- 1) + ? = – 2
1
-1
0
2
Answers
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
It follows easily from a very simple axiom of the real number system. You can take a look at those here.
Axioms are a bunch of ‘self-evident truths’ that one takes for granted, and then derives all results from them. Hence in Mathematics, when one asks for a ‘proof’ of something, one can go only as far as the axioms in general.
Take a look at axiom no. (P3) there. It says that, for every real number a , there exists a unique number, denoted by (−a), such that
a+(−a)=0−−−(1)
Now, it follows that, for any number (−a) , there exists a number c such that
(−a)+c=0.
It follows that
c=−(−a).
From equation (1) above, we get c=a.
Hence, we have:
−(−a)=a.−−−(2)
Plug in the value a=1 In equation (2) above, we get
−(−1)=1.
Now, an alternative representation of −(−1) is (−1)×(−1).
Hence, we have:
−(−1)= (−1)×(−1)=(−1)2=1.
QED.