Math, asked by vaishnavipm09, 3 months ago

1+2-¹+3-¹+4⁰ Simplify and give reasons​

Answers

Answered by chanchal2724
1

Answer:

17/6

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, we have to simplify the following expression:

1 + 2⁻¹ + 3⁻¹ + 4⁰

Now, we know from the properties of indices that, a⁻ⁿ is equal to 1/aⁿ.

Hence, the above expression becomes

1 +1/2¹ +1/3¹ +4⁰

Now, we can apply another property of the indices that, a⁰ = 1, for any non-zero values of a.

Hence the above expression becomes

1+(1/2)+(1/3)+1 = 17/6 (Answer)

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