Math, asked by adityasantosh656, 8 months ago

1÷4²
$\frac{}^{2} }$

Answers

Answered by Anonymous

1

1÷4² = 1×(1/4)² = 1/16

HOPE IT HELPS.......

PLEASE MARK AS BRAINLIEST.......

Answered by Sarwaswa

1

The answer of the problem is given.

Plzzzzz Mark me as a brainliest.

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