Math, asked by sreesurya, 6 months ago

1 by 2 minus (3 4 -) minus 5 by 4 () is equals to (1 by 2 minus 3 by 4) minus minus 5 by 4 (is which property​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
2

Answer:

So the sign before 1 is minus hence face left and the sign before the latter 1 is minus hence move backward summing up 1 for one time starting from zero. And you got the answer plus 1. Hence proved.

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