Math, asked by kaavyajain3443, 4 days ago

1 by 7 of 42 is the question ​

Answers

Answered by dhruvshridhar2005
0

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is 6.

Answered by yassersayeed
0

In accordance with the information provided in the question,

We have found the value of the supplied expression in the above question.

Given the information 1 by 7 0f 42

Here, we will use BODMAS RULE.  

BODMAS RULE:- It is a correct order to solve the mathematical expression.

Where, B stands for bracket

O stands for of

D stands for divide

M stands for multiplication

A stands for addition

S stands for subtraction.

We have done thus far,

\Rightarrow \frac{1}{7} *42\\\Rightarrow  6\\

As a result ,we will need a solution is 6.

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