(1 - cos A) (1 + sec A) = tan A sin A.
Prove
Answers
Answered by
1
here is your ans ....................
Attachments:
Answered by
5
(1-cosA)(1+secA)
(1-cosA)(1+1/cosA)
(1-CosA)(1+cosA/cosA)
1-Cos^2A/cosA
As we know
Sin^2A+cos^2A= 1
so sin^2A=1-cos^2A
therefore
sin^2A/cosA
(sinA/cosA)×sinA
tanAsinA
thanks for asking
Anonymous:
please mark as brainliest
Similar questions