Math, asked by shivani0101, 3 months ago

1÷D2+a2× sinax is equal to​

Answers

Answered by priyanshujhajharia26
0

Step-by-step explanation:

My approach:

PI=1D2+a2(sinax).

Knowing that 1D(ex)=xex and sinax=eiax−e−iax2i. I tried solving this.

Here is where I face difficulty,

12i(D2+a2)(eiax)=eiax12i((D+ia)2+a2)(1)=eiax12iD(D+2ai)(1)=eiax1−4a(1+D2ai)−1(x)=eiax1−4a(x−12ai)

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