Physics, asked by fazalphy621, 10 months ago

1. How can the wavelength of an electron be given by 1 = hlp?
Does the very presence of the momentum p in this formula
not imply that the electron is a particle?​

Answers

Answered by ayushkumarsingh262
0

it can be because it is wavelength and wavelength is wavelength wave is big brother length is is small brother

Answered by backbencher67
3

Explanation:

Yes it's indeed true the presence of term p implies that it is a particle nature if u have read the experiment of hertz (photoelectric effect) it clearly shows it is a particle nature becouse any particle with mass will have energy so as momentum . On that experiment it created a current by emmition of electron which can be said that it have a particle nature

For ur first part

According to Sir Albert Einstein E=mc^2

And according to Sir planc =E=hc/lambda

So if we equate then

Hc/lambda=m*c^2

Lambda=h/mv

=h/p

Hope u understood

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