English, asked by sadatulroufwani, 7 months ago

1. None of us is to be blamed
2. None of us are to be blamed

Are both the sentences correct?

Answers

Answered by merinmathew232
2

Answer:

Only the first sentence is correct.

Explanation: None means ‘Not one’

Though you are referring a group of people but when you use none of that means you are referring each individual and hence it should be is and not are.

Few examples:

   Everyone gathered here is smart.

   None of the questions was easy to answer.

   None of the battles was lost by him.

Answered by priyeshchauhan378
0

second sentence is wrong

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