Math, asked by kinjaljainteachindia, 9 months ago

1) please answer fast...
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Answers

Answered by Anonymous
1

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the side of the triangle be 'a' units

Therefore by Pythagoras theorem in ∆ADC we have,

AD²+CD²=AC²

AC²= a²+a²

AC²=2a²

AC=a√2 units

Since ∆ACF ~∆BCE

ar(∆ACF)/ar(∆BCE)

=AC²/BC²

=(√2a)²/a²

=2a/a

=2

Or simply

1/2 ar(∆ACF)=ar(∆BCE)

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