Math, asked by nileshpansari, 10 months ago

(1+sec a+tan a)/(1+sec a-tan a)=sec a+tan a prove it plz help me friends plzzzzzzzz

Answers

Answered by sehajarsh
0
Classic question
Here is the solution
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Answered by singhjap302
0

Step-by-step explanation:-

So for this question we have to put 1 = sec^2\alpha -tan^2\alpha (1)

From 1 we put value of 1

(sec^2a-tan^2a+seca+tana)/1+seca-tana= R.H.S

[(seca-tana)(seca+tana)+seca+tana]/1+seca-tana    

  • By using identity (a+b)*(a-b) gives a^2 - b^2

now seca+tana can be taken common so,

(seca+tana)[seca-tana+1]/(1+seca-tana)=RHS

(seca-tana+1) gets cancelled

so seca+tana=seca+tana

LHS=RHS Hence proved

Please mark me the brainliest

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