Math, asked by Fizas, 11 months ago

(1-sin^2A)(sec^2A)=1

Answers

Answered by alekhya165
0

Step-by-step explanation:

As,

sin^2A+cos^2A=1,we get

1-sin^2A as cos^2A & sec^2A=1/cos^2A

hence,

(1-sin^2A)(sec^2A)=1

HOPE IT IS HELPFUL TO U AND U UNDERSTOOD!

Answered by Anonymous
0

Answer:

(1-sin^2A)*sec^2A

since 1-sin^2A=cos^2A so we get

cos^2A*sec^2A

sec^2A can be written as 1/cos^2A so we get

cos^2A*1/cos^2A

so cos^2A get cancelled so we get

(1-sin^2A)sec^2A=1

hope u understood

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