Math, asked by dhanyasuvarnark, 1 year ago

(1 - sin^2A) - sec^2A=1

Answers

Answered by ARG57
0

Answer:

Correct

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a subject called trigonometry.

thanks for points

Answered by India21vns
2

Step-by-step explanation:

(1-sin^2A)-sec^2A

=1-sin^2A-sec^A

now sec^2A=1/cos^2A

since=1-sin^2A-1/cos^2A

by taking LCM and simplifying you get:

=(cos^2A-cos^2A×sin^2A-1)/cos^2A

now take cos^2A common from numerator we get:

={cos^2A(1-sin^2A)-1}/cos^2A(eqn.1)

since sin^2A+cos^2A=1... [identity]

so,1-sin^2A=cos^2A now put this value in our eqn.1

we get:

{cos^2A×cos^2A-1}/cos^2A

={cos^4A-1}/cos^2A is not equal to1

that is not true thus your question is incorrect plzz follow me and make some corrections in your question.

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