(1 - sin^2A) - sec^2A=1
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Answered by
0
Answer:
Correct
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a subject called trigonometry.
thanks for points
Answered by
2
Step-by-step explanation:
(1-sin^2A)-sec^2A
=1-sin^2A-sec^A
now sec^2A=1/cos^2A
since=1-sin^2A-1/cos^2A
by taking LCM and simplifying you get:
=(cos^2A-cos^2A×sin^2A-1)/cos^2A
now take cos^2A common from numerator we get:
={cos^2A(1-sin^2A)-1}/cos^2A(eqn.1)
since sin^2A+cos^2A=1... [identity]
so,1-sin^2A=cos^2A now put this value in our eqn.1
we get:
{cos^2A×cos^2A-1}/cos^2A
={cos^4A-1}/cos^2A is not equal to1
that is not true thus your question is incorrect plzz follow me and make some corrections in your question.
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