Math, asked by sheetalbora242, 1 month ago

1/x is always defined if x is an irrational number. True or false

Answers

Answered by ashiparmar006

0

Answer:

false is the answer hope it helps you

Answered by Anonymous

0

Answer:

By how much I understand ur question, the answer is yes!

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes because x is basically 1x. If I say 1y then in other words it is also known as y.

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