Math, asked by shibilidebbarma, 1 year ago

(1+y)p + (1+x)q = z solve the problem by lagranges method type-4

Attachments:

Answers

Answered by RajTejaswi
12

Let us take 1/x=u and 1/y=v then the given equations reduces to  pu+qv =m……(eqn 1) &  qu+pv=n……..(eqn 2)  Multiply (eqn1) by n &(eqn 2) by (-m), and then in the next step add the obtained eqns.  I.e, pu×n+qv×n=mn & qu×(-m)+pv×(-m)=(-m)n  On adding we get (pn-qm)u+(qn-pm)v=0  => v/u=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm)  Replacing u by 1/x and v by 1/y we get,  =>(1/y )/(1/x)=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm)  =>x/y=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm)  But (qn-pm) not equal to 0.


RajTejaswi: Hope this helps.. :D
Answered by rrgk97
2

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Attachments:
Similar questions