(1+y)p + (1+x)q = z solve the problem by lagranges method type-4
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Let us take 1/x=u and 1/y=v then the given equations reduces to pu+qv =m……(eqn 1) & qu+pv=n……..(eqn 2) Multiply (eqn1) by n &(eqn 2) by (-m), and then in the next step add the obtained eqns. I.e, pu×n+qv×n=mn & qu×(-m)+pv×(-m)=(-m)n On adding we get (pn-qm)u+(qn-pm)v=0 => v/u=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm) Replacing u by 1/x and v by 1/y we get, =>(1/y )/(1/x)=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm) =>x/y=(qm-pn)/(qn-pm) But (qn-pm) not equal to 0.
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