Math, asked by karthikkoppula358, 3 days ago

10. If x+1 men will do the work in x + 1 days, find the number of days that (x+2) men can finish the same work.​

Answers

Answered by xavierace99
0

We know that,

x+1 men ⇒x+1 days

1 man ⇒(x+1)∗(x+1) days

x+2 men ⇒

x+2

(x+1)

2

days

∴,x+2 men can do the same work in

(x+2)

(x+1)

2

days

Attachments:
Answered by arpithapillai001
0

Answer:

We know that,

x+1 men ⇒x+1 days

1 man ⇒(x+1)∗(x+1) days

x+2 men ⇒ (x+1) ^2 / x+2 days

∴ x+2 men can do the same work in (x+1) ^2 / (x+2)days

Hope it is helpful

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