Math, asked by rathanlalkag, 3 months ago

10.If x^2 – x – 42 = (x + k)(x + 6), then k = *

1 point

(a) 6

(b) -6

(c) 7

(d) -7.​

Answers

Answered by nirmala102223
0

Answer:

option (d) is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

In RHS if we take k= -7

then

(x+(-7) (x+6)

(x-7) (x+6)

x(x+6) -7(x+6)

x² + 6x -7x - 42

x² - x - 42

hence LHS = RHS

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