10.If x^2 – x – 42 = (x + k)(x + 6), then k = *
1 point
(a) 6
(b) -6
(c) 7
(d) -7.
Answers
Answered by
0
Answer:
option (d) is correct
Step-by-step explanation:
In RHS if we take k= -7
then
(x+(-7) (x+6)
(x-7) (x+6)
x(x+6) -7(x+6)
x² + 6x -7x - 42
x² - x - 42
hence LHS = RHS
mark me as brainlist
Similar questions