Math, asked by tecnicgaming1133, 3 months ago

16 ^n×4^2×(4^-n/
2)^-2-64/4^3m×15=1/64,then prove that m-n=1


if you don't know please don't give the answer or I will report your 10 answer
no snap...​

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Answered by Anonymous
4

Answer:

hello

L.H.S = (4pq + 3q)2 − (4pq − 3q)2 = (4pq)2 + 2(4pq)(3q) + (3q)2 − [(4pq)2 − 2(4pq) (3q) + (3q)2] = 16p2q2 + 24pq2 + 9q2 − [16p2q2 − 24pq2 + 9q2] = 16p2q2 + 24pq2 + 9q2 −16p2q2 + 24pq2 − 9q2 = 48pq2 = R.H.S (iii) L.H.S = (a − b) (a + b) + (b − c) (b + c) + (c − a) (c + a) = (a2 − b2) + (b2 − c2) + (c2 − a2) = 0 = R.H.S.

Answered by Anonymous
1

L.H.S = (4pq + 3q)2 − (4pq − 3q)2 = (4pq)2 + 2(4pq)(3q) + (3q)2 − [(4pq)2 − 2(4pq) (3q) + (3q)2] = 16p2q2 + 24pq2 + 9q2 − [16p2q2 − 24pq2 + 9q2] = 16p2q2 + 24pq2 + 9q2 −16p2q2 + 24pq2 − 9q2 = 48pq2 = R.H.S (iii) L.H.S = (a − b) (a + b) + (b − c) (b + c) + (c − a) (c + a) = (a2 − b2) + (b2 − c2) + (c2 − a2) = 0 = R.H.S.

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