English, asked by firdousjmutwalli, 2 months ago

2 marks
Q.No : 6
If f(x)=x² and g(x)=x on [a, b], then c of CMVT is​

Answers

Answered by neeratanwar23
1

Answer:

Let the functions

f

(

x

)

and

g

(

x

)

be continuous on an interval

[

a

,

b

]

,

differentiable on

(

a

,

b

)

,

and

g

(

x

)

0

for all

x

(

a

,

b

)

.

Then there is a point

x

=

c

in this interval such that

f

(

b

)

f

(

a

)

g

(

b

)

g

(

a

)

=

f

(

c

)

g

(

c

)

.

Proof.

First of all, we note that the denominator in the left side of the Cauchy formula is not zero:

g

(

b

)

g

(

a

)

0.

Indeed, if

g

(

b

)

=

g

(

a

)

,

then by Rolle’s theorem, there is a point

d

(

a

,

b

)

,

in which

g

(

d

)

=

0.

This, however, contradicts the hypothesis that

g

(

x

)

0

for all

x

(

a

,

b

)

.

We introduce the auxiliary function

F

(

x

)

=

f

(

x

)

+

λ

g

(

x

)

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