Question

2 Question Number 10 40% of the coupons give the winner a vacation in Goa; the other coupons are blank. Each eligible person can draw only one coupon. What is the approximate probability that exactly 1 out of 5 people that draw a coupon get a vacation? Please note - 5 people draw a coupon one after the other and once drawn, a coupon is replaced back immediately before the next person can draw. 0.26 0.13 0 0.026 O 0.5 END TEST NEXT UNANSWER FLAG​

Answer 1

Answer:

b) 0.23

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of winning is 40% = 40/100 = 2/5.

The probability of NOT winning is 60% = 3/5.

5c3∗((8c1∗8c1∗8c1)20c1∗20c1∗20c1)∗(12c1∗12c120c1∗20c1))5c3∗((8c1∗8c1∗8c1)20c1∗20c1∗20c1)∗(12c1∗12c120c1∗20c1))

Answer 2

Concept:

the extent to which an event is likely to occur, measured by the ratio of the favourable cases to the whole number of cases possible.The area under the curve represents probability.

The formula used here is binomial distribution

P=ⁿCₓ(p)ˣ(q)ⁿ⁻ˣ

Where, p = probability of the favourable outcome

             q = probability of the unfavourable outcome

Given:

40% of the coupons give the winner a vacation in Goa; the other coupons are blank. Each eligible person can draw only one coupon.

Find:

The approximate probability that exactly 1 out of 5 people that draw a coupon get a vacation

Solution:

The probability of winning is 40% = 40/100 = 2/5.

The probability of NOT winning is 60% = 3/5.

We must need to create WNNNN situation, i.e. one win and four loseNo. of ways to iterate WNNNN =5!/(1!x4!)=5

P(WNNNN)=5x(2/5)x(3/5)⁴

                  =0.26

Hence the probability of exactly 1 win out of 5 people is 0.26

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