Question

2 tan inverse sin x is equal to tan inverse x

Answer 1

Step-by-step explanation:

pls follow me

mark me brainliest

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

We have, 2 tan−1(sinx) = tan−1(2 sec x)

Now, using 2tan−1(x) = tan−1( 2 x/1-x^2)

So, tan−1(2 sin (x)/1-sin^2 (x) ) = tan−1( 2 sec (x) )

or 2 sin (x)/cos^2 (x) = 2/cos (x)

{ Using sec x = 1/cos (x) and 1 - sin^2 (x) = cos^2 (x) }

So, Sin (x)/Cos (x) = 1

or tan (x) = 1

or x = π/4