Science, asked by Anonymous, 11 months ago

20 points



explain this..​

Attachments:

wendell9: hii
Anonymous: hy
wendell9: what are you doing
Anonymous: Just played pubg
Anonymous: you?
wendell9: let's play pubg
wendell9: my name is fireworks27
Anonymous: Not now
Anonymous: :)
wendell9: then when

Answers

Answered by Modulus
2

(a) The unit of x need not be same as the unit of q because you can, with ease, multiply quantities with different units. I like to think of it this way, relating it to everyday life. If an apple costs 5 rupees, then ten apples cost, 10 × 5 rupees = 50 rupees. Here 10 had no unit but 5 had the unit "rupees" still I was able to work the multiplication out.

(b) The unit of x need not be same as the unit of p because if q was a unitless quantity, then the dimensions of t/p have to same as x, hence, x may not be coevally united as p.

(c) For the same reason, t and q have no compulsion to be of same units.

(d) And you obviously can divide two quantities with different units, hence making this statement false.

So none of the above statements is correct.

Answered by mustafa3952
0

Answer:

The above answer is correct for the explaination.So none of them.

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