Math, asked by kaurkarmjit69, 1 day ago

3 by 4 + ( 2by 3 × 5 by 6 ) ÷ 5 by 6 × 1 by 8​

Answers

Answered by lsarang787
0

Answer:

1is the answer we mulply all get 1

Answered by geetamourya1998
1

Answer:

First we convert each mixed fraction into an improper fraction.

⇒[8(5/6)]=(53/6)

also ⇒[3(3/8)]=(27/8)

and ⇒[1(7/12)]=(19/12)

Then,

(53/6)−(27−8)−(19/12)

LCM of 6,8,12=24

Now, let us change each of the given fraction into an equivalent fraction having 24 as the denominator.

=[(53/6)×(4/4)]=(212/24)

also =[(27/8)×(3/3)]=(81/24)

and =[(19/12)×(2/2)]=(38/24)

Now,

=(212/24)−(81/24)−(38/24)

=[(212−81+38)/24]

=[(250−81/24)]

=(169/24)

=[7(1/24)]

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