Math, asked by ak3586501, 5 months ago

3. Does the function f, defined as f: z → z and
f (x)= X^w is surjective? Where z is set of integers.​

Answers

Answered by mannat200891
1

Answer:

As x=1 and x=−1 both having same image that is 1 hence f(x)=x

2

is not injective.

Also as given domain is Z and there is no preimage for x=−1 in Z hence given function f(x)=x

2

is not surjective.

Finally as given function is neither injective nor surjective hence obviously it is not bijective.

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