Math, asked by shwetachauhan6002, 10 months ago

3. If the product of two whole numbers is 1, can we say that one or both of them will be
1 ? Justify through examples.​

Answers

Answered by abhinavmotha76
0

Answer:

yes,because multiplication of any two whole does not give 1 except if the both numbers are 1.

example: 1×1=1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answered by Roselynkaur1112
2

Answer-We know that on multiplying any whole number by 1 we get the same whole number.

1 is the identity for multiplication of whole numbers or multiplicative identity for whole numbers.

A number remain unchanged when multiplied by 1.

For e.g

6×1= 6 , 15×1= 15, 0×1= 0, 1×1= 1

Hence the product of two whole numbers will be equal to 1 if and only if both whole numbers are 1.

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