Social Sciences, asked by KarunatTandon, 9 months ago

3 Marker Question

1. Can there be different views within the same religion? Elucidate with examples.

2. Why were the official records not always helpful to understand the psyche of the

people?

3. What were the chief causes of conflict between the nawab of Bengal and the East

India Company?

4. Why did the people of Nepal want a new constitution?

5. Explain the policy of Paramountcy.

6. Write the changes that were introduced in the Judiciary under the Regulating Act of

1773.
Please answer ​

Answers

Answered by PrudhvinathReddy
3

THE PULSE

The Origins of Hindu-Muslim Conflict in South Asia

What are the historical origins of animosities between South Asia’s two largest religions?

Akhilesh Pillalamarri

By Akhilesh Pillalamarri

March 16, 2019

The Origins of Hindu-Muslim Conflict in South Asia

Credit: Teadmata via Wikimedia Commons

It has lately become fashionable in some circles, particularly among individuals inundated in postcolonial thought, to blame the current conflict between India and Pakistan, and more generally, strife between Hindus and Muslims on the British, and the British Raj’s colonial policies. In the words of Shashi Tharoor, an Indian parliamentarian: “The colonial project of ‘divide et impera’ (divide and rule) fomented religious antagonisms to facilitate continued imperial rule and reached its tragic culmination in 1947.” Some academics go even further, arguing that the very religious identities of Hindus and Muslims in the subcontinent were constructed by the British, and as such, the subsequent strife between these groups was a function of this policy.

In other words, most of South Asia’s contemporary geopolitical and ethno-religious problems, including the Kashmir conflict, the division of British India into India and Pakistan, and communal strife between Hindus and Muslims, are the result of Western influence. In this view, everyone in South Asia lived in relative harmony together before the 19th century. Often, British policies such as the 1909 decision to give Indian Muslims a separate electorate from Hindus in local elections, as well as the British role in India’s 1947 partition, are cited as proof of this policy to sow conflict between Indians. However, on the other hand, the work of historians like Ajay Verghese, an assistant professor of political science at the University of California, have demonstrated that areas in India formerly governed by princely states have more communal riots than the provinces in India ruled directly by the Raj.

Answered by triggeredprani
0

Answer:

1 . yes

2.dint know.

3.ask ur teacher.

4.

Similar questions