Math, asked by shubham56320, 5 months ago

(4⁰+5⁰)*2² is equivalent to​

Answers

Answered by Anonymous
7

Answer:

8 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

(1+1)×2² [a⁰=1]

2×4

8

Hope it helped!

If it helped then plz mark this as brainliest!


shubham56320: thanks
shubham56320: to
shubham56320: you
shubham56320: very much
Answered by akanksha9934454505
1

Answer:

 {(4}^{0}  +  {5}^{0}) \times {2}^{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

as,we know if the power of any number is 0 then it is equal to 1.

so,

(1+1)2^2

= 2×4

= 8

so 8 is your ans.

hope you like it

Similar questions