Question

4. In the property of indices a^m÷ a^n = a^m-n, taking m = n, show that a^0 = 1​

Answer 1

m= n(given)

a^m/a^n= a^m-n (base is same& / means - in power)

a^m-m ( they will cancel each other)

therefore

a^0 = 1

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

first

we will write the equation that is

a power m ÷a power n = a power m - power n ( taking a as common)

=a power m- power m ( since m =n)

*we can also take power n as common is your choice

=a0 ( since m -m =0)

=ao =1 ( from formula )

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