Math, asked by btrmercy1234, 6 months ago

4. Rupees 4,000 amount to 5,000 in 8 years;
in what time will * 2,100 amount to 2,800 at
the same rate ?​

Answers

Answered by dhrubayanpal7a32020
6

Step-by-step explanation:

In first case :

A = Rs. 5000

P = Rs. 4000

I = Rs. A – P

= Rs. 5000 – Rs. 4000

= Rs. 1000

T = 8 Years

R = (100 × I)/(P × R)

= (100 × 1000)/(4000 × 8)

= (25/8)%

In the second case :

A = Rs. 2800

P = Rs. 2100

I = Rs. 2800 – Rs. 2100 = Rs. 700

R = (25/8) %

T = (100 × I)/(P × R) = (100 × 700)/(2100 × (25/8))

= (100 × 700 × 8)/(2100 × 25) = 32/3 years

=(10. 2/3) years

= 10. 2/3 × 12 months = (10. 24/3) months

= 10 years 8 months

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