Social Sciences, asked by np1rl, 1 month ago

5. In the property of indices a^m ÷ a^n = a^m-n, taking m=n
show that a^-n=1÷a^n

Answers

Answered by Rikita30
1

 \dag \:  \mathcal{ \huge{ \green{Solution }}}  \: \dag

 \longrightarrow \: {a}^{m}  \div  {a}^{n}  =  {a}^{m - n}

 \dag \:  \mathcal{ \huge{ \green{Proof}}}  \: \dag

 \longrightarrow \tt \:  \:  \underline{LHS}

 \longrightarrow {a}^{ - n}  \\

 \longrightarrow  {a}^{0 - n}  \\

 \longrightarrow  \frac{ {a}^{0} }{ {a}^{n} }  \\

 \longrightarrow  \bf \:   \frac{1}{ {a}^{n} }  \\

 \longrightarrow \tt \:  \:  \underline{RHS} \:  \:  \:  \: \:  \:  \:   \bf \red{ [Proved]}

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