Question

.. (5) Is ~(p+q) equivalent to (p)479 ? Justify.​

Answer 1

Answer:

p+q is equivalent to (p+q) because of commutative law of integers that say that a+b = (a+b)

Hope it helps...

Answer 2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:✍️

p+q is equivalent to (p+q) because of commutative law of integers that say that a+b = (a+b)

Hope it helps you !!

thank you ⭐