Question

50% of a = b , then b% of 40 is the same as of a

Answer 1

No, as if 50% of a is b than a is double of b

Answer 2

Answer:

a% of 20

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

$50\%\text{ of } a = b$

$\frac{50\times a}{100}=b$

By multiplying 40 % on both sides,

$40\%\text{ of }\frac{50\times a}{100}=40\%\text{ of }b$

$\frac{40\times 50\times a}{10000}=b\%\text{ of }40$ ( a% of b = b% of a )

$\frac{2000 a}{10000}=b\%\text{ of }40$

$\frac{a(20)}{100}=b\%\text{ of }40$

$a\%\text{ of }20=b\%\text{ of }40$