Accountancy, asked by basit3746, 5 months ago

6% debentures of 100 each 100000 to be converted into such number of 8% debentures of 50 each amount of interest as before. the amouny of 8% debemtures will be?​

Answers

Answered by ashleshajadhavj
0

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Answered by pavanadevassy
0

Answer:

1500 8% debentures of fv rupees 50 would give 6000 interest

Explanation:

let it be x

1000 6% debenture at the rate 100 fv  ----> x debentures 8% of 50 fv

1000×100×6% = 6000 (interest)  -----> 6000 (interest)

X × 100 × \frac{8}{100} = 6000

x = 750 at the rate of 100

  = 750×2 at the rate of 50

  = 1500 at the rate of 50

1500 8% debenture of fv rupees 50 would give 6000 interest

(same as 1000 6% debenture at the rate of 100)

#SPJ3

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