Math, asked by ashwinkhanuja, 3 months ago

6) Successive discounts of 20% and 20%
are equivalent to a single discount of
(a) 40%
(b) 45%
(c) 50%
(d) 36%​

Answers

Answered by Cynefin
41

Required Answer:-

Here we have two successive discounts. We can directly use the formula for determining the final discount. The formula says:

 \underline{\boxed{ \bf{Total \: Discount =  x + y - \frac{ xy}{100} \%}}}

Where x and y are successive discounts. Plugging them in this formula gives:

➙ Total discount = 20 + 20 - 20*20/100 %

➙ Total discount = 40 - 4 %

➙ Total discount = 36% (D)

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Now let's take an example to understand the above formula. We have to take amy amount. For convenience, I am choosing Rs. 100 for an item.

First discount:

= Rs. 100 - 20% discount

= Rs. 100 - 20/100 × Rs. 100

= Rs. 100 - Rs. 20

= Rs. 80

Second discount:

= Rs. 80 - 20% discount

= Rs. 80 - 20/100 × Rs. 80

= Rs. 80 - Rs. 16

= Rs. 64

Hence, Final amount will be Rs. 64. Amount in total discount = Rs. 100 - Rs. 64 = Rs. 36 which 36% as a total discount for the given amount.


BrainIyMSDhoni: Superb :)
Cynefin: Thank uh! :D
amitkumar44481: Perfect :-)
Cynefin: Thank uh! :D
Answered by Anonymous
37

Given :-

  • Successive Discount of 20% and 20% are equivalent to a single Discount

To Find :-

Single Discount

Theory :-

Firstly we will assume the two discount as x and y. Then, the x and y will be put in an equation which is

 \sf \: Discount = x + y -  \dfrac{xy}{100}\%

Now,

We will put the Discount percentage

Solution :-

 \sf \implies \: Discount = 20 + 20 -  \dfrac{20 \times 20}{100}

 \sf \implies \: Discount = 40 -  \dfrac{20 \times 20}{100}

  \sf \implies \: Discount = 40 -   \cancel\dfrac{400}{100}

 \sf \implies \: Discount = 40 - 4

 \frak \pink{Discount = 36\%}

Hence :-

Option (D) is correct


BrainIyMSDhoni: Great :)
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