Math, asked by harsh479175, 3 months ago


7. If R be a relation from Q to Q defined by R = {(a,b):a, b€Q and a-b€Z}, then show that
( (a, a) €R VaeQ..
(ii) (a,b) €R(b,a) €R
(iii) (a,b)€ Rand (b,c)€ R=(ac) €R.
€ stands for belongs to​

Answers

Answered by SujalBendre
3

Answer:

If R be a relation from Q to Q defined by R = {(a,b):a, b€Q and a-b€Z}, then show that

( (a, a) €R VaeQ..

(ii) (a,b) €R(b,a) €R

(iii) (a,b)€ Rand (b,c)€ R=(ac) €R.

€ stands for belongs to

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