Math, asked by marazzakmarazzak9, 5 hours ago



8) If 2(a²+b?)=(a+b)?, then show that a=b?​

Answers

Answered by sharma78savita
1

Answer:

Assume that (a−b)

2

,(a

2

+b

2

) and (a+b)

2

are in AP.

So, difference between two consecutive terms will be same.

(a

2

+b

2

)−(a−b)

2

=(a+b)

2

−(a

2

+b

2

)

(a

2

+b

2

)−(a

2

+b

2

−2ab)=a

2

+b

2

+2ab−a

2

−b

2

2ab=2ab

Which is true.

Hence given terms are in AP.

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