Accountancy, asked by guptaaakash9799, 4 months ago

.
9. Proprietor of the firm has taken goods for his personal use. The accountant has recorded it as sales in the books of accounts. Is he correct in doing so? Explain with reason.

Answers

Answered by upadhayaanish17

0

Answer:

no , he is not correct in doing so

Explanation:

he is wrong in doing so

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