Math, asked by surajkattel169, 3 months ago

(a^-1 +b^-1)(a+b)^-1 =a^mb^n, prove that a^(m-n) =1

Answers

Answered by dollrajeshwari
0

Answer:

a^(1/m)=b^(1/n)=c^(1/p)=k(say)

=> a=k^(1/1/m)=k^m

Similarly b=k^n and c=k^p

Now,abc=1 (Given)

=> k^m × k^n × k^p = 1

=>k^(m+n+p) = 1 = k^0

Hence, m+n+p = 0.Ans.

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