(a^-1 +b^-1)(a+b)^-1 =a^mb^n, prove that a^(m-n) =1
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Answer:
a^(1/m)=b^(1/n)=c^(1/p)=k(say)
=> a=k^(1/1/m)=k^m
Similarly b=k^n and c=k^p
Now,abc=1 (Given)
=> k^m × k^n × k^p = 1
=>k^(m+n+p) = 1 = k^0
Hence, m+n+p = 0.Ans.
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