a^2+ b^3÷ a^2 ×168010= 1 , proof.
.
.
.
.
.
or solve -> 15 × 2
Answers
Answered by
3
hope it helps you a lot
Attachments:
Answered by
5
______Heyy Buddy ❤______
____Here's your Answer _______
=> 15 × 2
=> 30.
We just need to multiply 15 by 2.
And Answer is 30.
✔✔✔
____Here's your Answer _______
=> 15 × 2
=> 30.
We just need to multiply 15 by 2.
And Answer is 30.
✔✔✔
Similar questions
Physics,
7 months ago
Math,
7 months ago
Social Sciences,
1 year ago
Psychology,
1 year ago
Math,
1 year ago
Physics,
1 year ago