Science, asked by sumitgami416, 1 day ago

A 62-year-old man presents to the emergency department after suddenly losing the use of his right leg. He reports that he had a few days of headache, fever, and sore throat, which was treated with oral antibiotics and resolved approximately 4 days ago. He was feeling fine until this morning, when he could not lift his right leg to get out of bed. All of his other limbs are functioning normally, and he has normal sensation in them. He has a medical history significant for lung cancer for which he is receiving chemotherapy, with his most recent cycle having been completed a few days prior to the onset of his febrile illness. He denies having any recent falls, injuries, current headache, or neurologic symptoms other than in the right leg. He has not traveled outside of the United States. His only current medication is. amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, which was prescribed for his recent febrile illness. He lives with his son daughter-in-law, and 2 young grandchildren. The children are healthy, and each had their routine well-child checkups and vaccinations about 1 month ago, including an oral vaccine. On examination, he is anxious appearing but has normal vital signs and has unremarkable head and neck, cardiovascular, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations. He has flaccid paralysis with normal sensation of the right leg, normal movement and strength in all other extremities and a normal cranial nerve examination. Computed tomography of the head and lumbar magnetic resonance imaging are also normal.


1. What is the most likely infectious cause of this man's flaccid paralysis?

2. Assuming that he was infected at home, what is the most likely source of his infection?​

Answers

Answered by aaliyanaazwarsia07
0

Answer:

MARK ME BRAINLIEST

Explanation:

A. flaccid paralysis

B. Viral infection

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