A certain couple got only four daughters in a row and no son. Does it mean that the husband does not produce y-bearing sperms? Explain.
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The male sperm posses XY chromosome, where as Egg (in female) posses XX chromosome, So during fertilisation female can give only X chromosome, whereas male can give either X or Y chromosome. Zygote either posses XX(female) or XY(male) chromosome. If a couple has only daughters this means that every time sperm possess only X chromosome of father fertilises the egg of female. Therefore, it doesn't mean that the male (husband) does not produce Y bearing sperm.
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Arushi2413:
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Answer:
Explanation:
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This may be because of several reasons.
I: The first reason is because the X-chromosomes are comparatively faster than that of y-chromosomes. This causes X-chromosome to reach faster to the ova/egg and fertilise it. It causes the birth of a girl again.
II. The second reason is because the y-chromosome may not be developed in the homo-sapien because during the division, the x-chromosome might have been stronger. Due to this, the y-chromosome is weaker and it cannot compete with that of the x-chromosome.
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