Business Studies, asked by Twet1870, 1 year ago

a company owns a commercial complex, out of which certain food vendors operate. the company does not have any control over the vendor’s employees and does not pay any wages to the vendor’s employees. will the company be considered as an “employer” under section 2(e)(ii) of the employees provident fund act, 1952, even when wages are not paid to the vendor’s employees, either directly or indirectly?

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Answered by kanta22566
0
please give me answer
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