Physics, asked by gogetasan99, 8 months ago

A conducting rod AB of length l is projected on a frictionless frame PSRQ with velocity v0 at any instant. The velocity of the rod after time t is​

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Answers

Answered by prabinkumarbehera
3

Answer:

If it's fully Frictionless then it will be v < vo

If it's somehow less frictionless then somewhat friction will act upon it, so it will be v > vo

Answered by nirman95
12

Given:

A conducting rod AB of length l is projected on a frictionless frame PSRQ with velocity v0 at any instant.

To find:

Velocity after time t

Diagram:

\boxed{\setlength{\unitlength}{1cm}\begin{picture}(6,5)\thicklines\put(3,3){\line(0,-1){2}}\put(3,2){\vector(1,0){1}}\put(3,2){\vector(-1,0){0.75}}\put(4.25,2){$\vec{v}_{0}$}\put(2,2){$\vec{a}$}\put(2.95,3.25){A}\put(2.95,0.70){B}\end{picture}}

Calculation:

Due to movement of rod , the EMF generated

 \therefore \: E = Blv_{0}

Now , current through the rod AB having resistance r;

 \therefore \:i =  \dfrac{ E}{r} =  \dfrac{Blv_{0} }{r}

So, magnetic force experienced by rod be F;

 \therefore \:F = i \times l \times B

 =  &gt;  \:F=   \dfrac{{B}^{2} {l}^{2} v_{0} }{r}

 =  &gt;  \:a=   \dfrac{{B}^{2} {l}^{2} v_{0} }{mr}

This acceleration is opposite to the direction of the initial velocity.

So, after time t;

 \therefore \: v = v_{0} - at

 =  &gt;  \: v  &lt;  v_{0}

So, final answer is:

 \boxed{ \bf{ \: v  &lt;  v_{0} }}

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