Math, asked by Yasashwi9644, 1 year ago

A contractor sold two houses for Rs. 20,00,000/- each. On one his profit was 20% and on
the other his loss was 20%. The gain or loss percentage in the sale was
(1) gain 4%
(2) loss 4%
(3) loss 6%
(4) no loss or no gain


rakeshmohata: hi... the required answer is option (1)
27jenny: okk

Answers

Answered by 5U8H0J1T
0
4) no loss or no gain...
Answered by rakeshmohata
5
Hope u like my process
======================
For 1st house,

=> SP = Rs 20,00,000

=> Let CP be Rs x

=> Gain = Rs (2000000-x)

=> Gain % =20%

 = > \frac{gain}{CP } \times 100 = 20 \\ \\ = > \frac{(2000000 - x) \times 10}{x} = \frac{20}{10} \\ \\ = > 20000000 - 10x = 2x \\ \\ = > 12x = 20000000 \\ \\ = > \bf \: x = \frac{20000000}{12} = Rs \: \: \frac{5000000}{3}

So,.. CP = Rs x

 = \bf Rs \: \frac{5000000}{3} = Rs \: 1666666.6667
_____________________________
For 2nd house,

=> Let CP be Rs x

=> SP = Rs 20,00,000

=> Loss =Rs (20,00,000 - x)

=> Loss % = 20%

 = > \frac{loss}{CP} \times 100 = 20 \\ \\ = > \frac{x - 2000000}{x} \times 10 = \frac{20}{10} \\ \\ = > 10x - 20000000 = 2x \\ \\ = > 8x = 20000000 \\ \\ = > x = \bf \: \frac{20000000}{8} = Rs \: \: \: 2500000

So, CP = Rs x = Rs 25,00,000

___________________________

=> Total CP = Rs 25,00,000 +16,66,666.6667

= Rs 41,66,666.6667

=> Total SP = 2 ×(20,00,000) =Rs 40,00,000

=> Loss = Rs (41,66,666.667 - 40,00,000)

= Rs 1,66,666.6667

=> loss %=

 = \frac{loss}{CP} \times 100 = \frac{166666.6667}{4166666.6667} \times 100 \\ \\ = \bf \: 0.04 \times 100 = 4\%

So.. Required answer is option 2.

Loss % = 4 %

___________________________
Hope this is ur required answer

Proud to help you
Similar questions